Second, how do we know that the original Slavs were only R1a folks? In fact, how do we know that R1a is “the” Slavic gene? After all, what if Slavs were I or R1b before, say, the Hun or Avar invasion making the “Slavic” y-dna, the dna of Avars or Huns… And how that was “infused” into Slavic women, we leave for you to picture.

Third, some R1a is found in Scandinavia and that R1a is different – mostly – from the “Slavic” one. Consequently, that R1a is a portion of R1a has been effectively ceded to the Nordics… But, by focusing on R1a, the “Slavologists” have also effectively ceded all R1b and I and other “haplogroups” to Nordics/Celts. Suddenly, the quest for “purity” resulted in 90% of all types of dna on the continent not being true “Slavic”. In effect the Nordic/Celtic “side” is able to claim 100% of R1b, 100% of I and a significant chunk of R1a… R1b and I are just given up without a fight…

But this is ridiculous. It may well be that various “African” and “Asian” haplogroups are definitively not Slavic. However, if someone carries a R1b or I haplogroup, why should that person not be viewed as Slavic? We are all for advocating blood relations between the Slavs but even we admit that – at some point in the past – there must have been a kernel of a community from which the Slavs arose and it is not at all clear that that kernel was constituted solely out of R1a…